Total Quality Management 21

Objective Questions and Answers of MBA: Total Quality Management 21

Subject: Objective Questions and Answers of MBA: Total Quality Management 21

Part 21: Objective questions and answers of Total Quality Management

 

Q1. From the project manager's viewpoint, quality assurance involves:

a) Conducting studies to determine if design methods will support quality requirements

b) Identifying applicable laws, ordinances and regulations that the project must comply with

c) Monitoring inspection activities to ensure that the work is performed as specified

d) A, B, and C

e) A and C

 

Q2.The ISO 9000 series is:

a) A set of instructions for preparing control charts

b) A set of guidelines for quality

c) A set of forms and procedures to ensure quality

d) An international standard that describes a recommended quality system

e) Intended to be applied only to manufactured products

 

Q3. A quality program within a project should be based on ______________ of errors to improve productivity along with quality levels.

a) Early detection

b) Early correction

c) Late detection

d) Late correction

e) Prevention

 

Q4. As one of its goal the project organization has quality to specified performance measures. When compared with the functional organization, the project organization _______.

a) Achieves higher levels of quality

b) Is always tailored to meet the specific quality goals

c) Is less disciplined in the implementation of quality

d) Is more disciplined in the implementation of quality

e) None of the above

 

Q5. The quality program may include the requirement for "witnessed inspections" of critical items for the project. When a subcontractor or vendor is to conduct a destructive test, the project manager must ensure the test is validated (witnessed) by a qualified member of his team. The purchase order or contract should contain a statement that requires the subcontractor or vendor performing the test to ______________.

a) Give a 30-day notice of when the test will be conducted and to provide a certificate of completion within seven days following the test

b) Notify the project manager, in writing, of the date and time for witnessing the test

c) Retain the residue of the item destroyed for a period of one year following completion of the project

d) Have present at the test at least three independent sources (individuals) who are qualified in destructive testing procedures

e) Report the results of the testing to an independent laboratory for confirmation and validation of the procedures

 

Q6. What was the primary concern of managers during 1980s?

a) Detection

b) Strategic impact

c) Control

d) Coordination

 

Q7. The 'Father' of statistical quality control is:

a) F. W. Taylor

b) Joseph M. Juran

c) Philip Crosby

d) Walter Shewhart

 

Q8. The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to:

a) Edward Deming

b) Philip Crosby

c) Juran

d) Pareto

 

Q9. All of the following statements about acceptance sampling plans are true except:

a) Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspections is high and the resulting loss of passing non-conforming units is not great

b) Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required

c) Acceptance sampling plans are never as effective at rejecting non-conforming units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious

d) Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality

e) Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custommade products

 

Q10. The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if manufacturers would do the following:

a) Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma control charts

b) Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the design stage

c) Create a quality control department

d) A and B

e) A and C

 

Q11. Quality control is:

a) Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them

b) Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance

c) Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards

d) Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer

e) Assuming the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury

 

Q12. The ______________ of a product or service mostly affects its reliability and maintenance characteristics.

a) Design

b) Concept

c) Fabrication

d) Performance

e) Cost

 

Q13. Which of the following statements best characterizes the quality management practice called benchmarking?

a) The ISO term for progress measurement

b) Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects

c) A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment

d) The difference between grade and quality

e) The measurement of customer satisfaction

 

Q14. Statistical sampling methods are valid for most projects, regardless of the lack of repetitive processes, because ______________.

a) Projects rely on external vendors for products that must meet contractual specifications to conform to the requirements

b) Purchased materials will never meet the requirements of the project

c) Services are amenable to statistical sampling even for small lots

d) It looks good to the customer when there is a mathematical approach to quality

e) Statistics provide a basis for customer acceptance of the projects

 

Q15. One of the advantages of team work is:

a) It breaks down barriers between internal

b) Customers and suppliers

c) It results in promotion

d) It results in salary increment

e) None of the given options

 

Q16. A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by each identified cause is:

a) Statistical Histogram

b) Juran Histogram

c) Fishbone Diagram

d) Pareto Diagram

 

Q17. A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed is called:

a) Quality Policy

b) Check list

c) Trend analysis

d) Pareto diagram

 

Q18. The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which quality control problems concerning a particular service or manufacturing process should be corrected. Which of the following statements best represents the philosophy employed by this principle?

a) In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems which have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected

b) The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems. Improvement efforts should be reserved for those few vital problems

c) In order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those which do not have a direct financial cost should be corrected

d) Generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via cost benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially worthy of improvement efforts

e) A and D

 

Q19. According to current quality management thinking, which of the following approaches to quality improvement is least likely to produce positive results?

a) Increased inspection

b) Continuous improvement

c) Quality circles

d) Statistical quality control

e) Use of worker suggestion systems

 

Q20. 100% inspection for defects may be neither possible nor desirable, When is sampling for defects likely to be most useful?

a) When destructive testing is required

b) When the cost of 100% inspection is high

c) When we believe there are not many defects

d) A, B, and C

e) A and B

 

Part 21: Objective questions and answers of Total Quality Management

 

Q1. Answer e

 

Q2. Answer d

 

Q3. Answer e

 

Q4. Answer c

 

Q5. Answer b

 

Q6. Answer b

 

Q7. Answer d

 

Q8. Answer a

 

Q9. Answer c

 

Q10. Answer b

 

Q11. Answer b

 

Q12. Answer a

 

Q13. Answer b

 

Q14. Answer a

 

Q15. Answer a

 

Q16. Answer b

 

Q17. Answer b

 

Q18. Answer b

 

Q19. Answer a

 

Q20. Answer e